Nobody is saying that. Our point is that where words differ it is wrong to assume that it is the US usage which has changed. It has sometimes but not always.Interesting point, especially as the KJ Bible and the first colony in America are at almost exactly the same time. Bibles would certainly have been the mainstay of literature in those days . And in this case you're right. But it doesn't make sense to me to say that one strand of the language has evolved or changed while the other strand hasn't. Certainly there'll be some usages that have been taken across the Pond that reflect usage in the Old Country. That's a far cry from saying that modern American English is a Snapshot of 17C "British" English.