I have raised this question once before, with the prices some establishments charge you might be forgiven for assuming that the cost of the glass is included in the purchase price, and that I have never seen any disclaimer on any bill of fare to the effect that this is not so.
Hypnoticmonkey came back with an interesting point: Be very specific about the contract terms.
If you ask for a pint of bitter and they ask you for £3 which you pay, the contract is for them to supply and for you to purchase a measured volume of beverage. The glass is merely on loan, it's a convenient method for them to dispense what you have contracted to purchase, rather than having you lie on your back behind the bar with your mouth open while the beer fairy pulls the handle. If you subsequently walk off with that glass you are committing an act of theft.
If you ask for a pint of bitter and âmay I have a handle glass pleaseâ and they still charge you £3, they have delivered the volume of beverage requested and acceded to your request for a tankard, you are therefore in the clear.
As a family man I have a major problem with the prices often charged for soft drinks. If you request (for example) a J2O (but that could also apply to bottled beers) and they ask you âwould you like a glass?â, they have volunteered to gift you a drinking vessel in addition to the purchased beverage. What they should say (but which has never been said to me) is âthat will be £x please, and would you like to borrow a glass for the duration of your stay with us?â
None of the aforementioned should be construed as formal legal advice, the scenarios proposed are purely hypothetical and I hereby absolve myself from any responsibility in a court of law should any readers be misguided enough to attempt to validate their accuracy in the real world.