I have been reading about malt on the WWW and I am more confused now than when I started. If barley is barley, and malted barley is barley that has had its starch converted to malt(ose) in a malting house, why is it necessary to mash pale malt? Why canât it just be steeped like crystal malt? Surely, if it needs mashing to convert the starch into sugar (maltose), then it was barley in the first place and not malted barley. Also, if speciality grains such as crystal malt contain low concentrations of fermentable sugars, are there any malts available that contain high concentrations of fermentable sugars that just require steeping and no mashing?
Ned
Ned