BaconWizard
New Member
- Joined
- Dec 15, 2021
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Hey all.
Ok, so I get the general idea I think.
Say you have a brew with a potential alcohol of 10% abv, and a yeast that will happily tolerate 10% abv, and that attenuates at 80% (although it's actually a range depending on conditions, of course) then you can expect to actually get 8% abv and not 10%, with 2% sugars remaining.
That's how I understand it.
By the same understanding, if the potenatial alcohol was only 5% then at 80% attenuation, one is expecting 4% abv in reality. Correct?
Here's what I don't understand: In the latter case, the yeast is perfectly happy with the 4% alcohol it has created and could go much higher, to 10% if there were enough sugars. There remains in-fact just 1% sugars which have thus-far not been used. Why then, would the yeast not now get-to-work on this too, and end-up at almost 100% attenuation?
Ok, so I get the general idea I think.
Say you have a brew with a potential alcohol of 10% abv, and a yeast that will happily tolerate 10% abv, and that attenuates at 80% (although it's actually a range depending on conditions, of course) then you can expect to actually get 8% abv and not 10%, with 2% sugars remaining.
That's how I understand it.
By the same understanding, if the potenatial alcohol was only 5% then at 80% attenuation, one is expecting 4% abv in reality. Correct?
Here's what I don't understand: In the latter case, the yeast is perfectly happy with the 4% alcohol it has created and could go much higher, to 10% if there were enough sugars. There remains in-fact just 1% sugars which have thus-far not been used. Why then, would the yeast not now get-to-work on this too, and end-up at almost 100% attenuation?